Why are the poor countries, that cant support or feed their people, refered to as "3rd world?" If those are 3rd world countries, why isnt there such thing as a "2nd world country?"
Whats the purpose of calling it "3rd world?"
2007-07-29 11:53:50 · 7 answers · asked by Big G 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Other - Society & Culture
2nd world used to be used for Warsaw Pact countries, when they were separate from the West
2007-07-29 11:57:57 · answer #1 · answered by rosie recipe 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The 1st world countries are the rich western nations.
The 2nd world countries were the communist nations.
The 3rd world countries are the poor, less developed nations
The 4th world countries are the poorest of the poor like the Sahel nations of Africa.
2007-07-29 18:58:55 · answer #2 · answered by tentofield 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
There is such a thing as 2nd world countries....
2007-07-29 19:00:16 · answer #3 · answered by lordkelvin 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
there are 2nd world countries.....Mexico is one of them.
im Mexican, so dont take it as a racist comment or anything like that. but yea, Mexico is a 2nd world country. they're not too poor, but they're not very rich either.
2007-07-29 23:00:19 · answer #4 · answered by metal_crazy_15 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
there is a '2nd world,' you just don't hear about it much.
it's basically all the average countries that aren't superpowers.
2007-07-29 18:58:37 · answer #5 · answered by superwow_rl 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
1st world economy is a developed economy.
2nd " " developing or emerging economy.
3rd " " is an undeveloped or underdeveloped economy
2007-07-29 18:59:25 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Third_World
2007-07-29 18:58:16 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋