Prior to WW2, the family only required one income to survive, as long as work was found of course...then in the 50s woman went out to provide the luxuries but usually part time and the children thrived....now, one income will not support a family and woman are forced away from their children and most to menial demeaning jobs..sure there are the exceptions but many are just slaves to greedy corporations...main question:...were woman set up to increase the workforce and with disastrous results for our the children?...and were the perpetrators of this supported by the woman's movements...were woman duped?
2007-07-27
14:06:51
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6 answers
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asked by
bruce b
3
in
Society & Culture
➔ Cultures & Groups
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