Can anyone prove through mathematical inductions that
n>=2.
(1- (1/2^2) * (1-(1/3^2) *...* (1-1/n^2).
2007-07-26 02:39:54 · 3 answers · asked by Qwon1 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Question is not quite clear, please correct it.
Some right bracket/s is missing.
2007-07-26 02:55:17 · answer #1 · answered by oregfiu 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Um well supposing you are starting by limiting yourself to whole numbers n>=0 to start with...
then you have to eliminate 0 because (1-1/0^2) is undefined, and you have to throw out 1 because (1-1/1^2) = 0...if you did not eliminate n=1 then your whole product would always be zero. So in the end you are left with n>=2!
2007-07-26 09:58:12 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
What are we proving.. There is no statement to prove..
Are we proving that it approaches 1/2.
Are we proving that it's >= 1/2
2007-07-26 09:46:03 · answer #3 · answered by Jeƒƒ Lebowski 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋