I bought a land of 500 sqm but only verbal agreement on road right of way. Now I was told that if I want to have easement to the land, I need to pay for it.
2007-07-24 17:50:26 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
You have a good answer about "landlocked " laws, however I would check what your indiscretion with the verbal agreement mistake is going to cost you before you consult with an attorney which may cost you even more. You may already have an easement as required when the land was subdivided. do some homework
2007-07-24 18:57:02 · answer #1 · answered by derf 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You will have to pay for it. Never do any agreement dealing with real estate or land by verbal agreement. Always get something in writing.
2007-07-25 01:08:47 · answer #2 · answered by msi_cord 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Many jurisdictions have laws that prevent subdivision or sale of land that is "land-locked", that is, has no road access. Your attorney may help you find ways to obtain access inexpensively, such as by having the town lay out a roadway for you, and assess the abutters for the improvement.
2007-07-25 01:36:12 · answer #3 · answered by Nuff Sed 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it depends, if you are in Manila, you don't need to pay. you can invoke sec103 of the Manila city ordinance which was contested in Many supreme court cases . best know case is Ramon Fabie vs city of manila, Manzano vs city of Manila, Juan entote vs Dominga vinzons . Since this is a city ordinance . Police power comes in instead of eminent domain
2014-03-18 03:57:52 · answer #4 · answered by william 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You have to pay for it
2007-07-25 01:00:52 · answer #5 · answered by Benchwarmer 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋