I am in court with my ex-landlord to get my deposit back, her defense is that she was forced to sign the paperwork when her husband purchased the property, because she is wife. I'm trying to distinguish if she is his partner voluntarily or by force.
2007-07-24 16:32:23 · 4 answers · asked by Jaslyn 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
What has it to do if she is a voluntary partner or a partner by any other means.
If she is a partner she call sign the papers.
You are owed your deposit back less any damages.
Damages that are more than the usual wear & tear.
These must be itemized.
2007-07-24 16:47:04 · answer #1 · answered by Floyd B 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, it is not mandatory that she participate. However, her husband may have forced her into it. That is called Duress in some jurisdictions, and Undue Influence in others. However, I doubt what she says is true.
2007-07-24 23:43:22 · answer #2 · answered by cyanne2ak 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. What a ridiculous idea.
She is blowing smoke up your nose.
It doesn't matter whether she signed the lease at the direction of her husband or on her own....she signed it - therefore it is legal and binding.
2007-07-25 00:48:05 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't think so.
2007-07-24 23:38:20 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋