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2007-07-24 11:39:13 · 2 answers · asked by m 1 in Computers & Internet Computer Networking

that is to say, the computer 'a' on network 'A' will have an ip of 192.168.1.42 and computer 'b' on network 'B' can't have an ip of 192.168.1.23.. i believe this is "different subnets"?

2007-07-24 13:04:05 · update #1

2 answers

Nope. One has to be on a different network and the router needs the gateway pointing to the other.

Example:

Router one: 192.168.1.175 w/ gateway 192.168.1.1
Router two: 192.168.2.175 w/ gateway 192.168.2.1

Point router one to router two's gateway and vice versa. This will open a VPN tunnel for both ends. On router One you need to go into the VPN tunnel settings and set the default gateway to 192.168.2.1 then go into router Two and set the VPN tunnel gateway to 192.168.1.1.

VPN's are not easy to set up so take your time and do your research. You might have to read up on your routers instruction manuals too. It is usually best to have identical routers at each end of the tunnel for compatibility.

2007-07-24 11:48:35 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Jon T is right. They both can't be the same.

2007-07-24 13:36:05 · answer #2 · answered by GJneedsanswers 5 · 0 0

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