2007-07-24 02:35:08 · 13 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Politics
Hi...No since there are a lot of good people that don't own their home or property and would vote for their choice of candidate. Our Founding Fathers were at an era that not too many people owned their own property so this is why they wanted only those that were prominent home/land owners to vote. This isn't the case as it is today. Have a great day!
2007-07-24 05:12:15 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
How much property?
I believe the original requirement in some colonies was 10 acres.
If you don't have any minimum size or value requirement, I'll be happy to sell anyone who wants to vote a one inch square plot of land, with full deed, etc. for $100.
If you do have some minimum requirement -- how do you choose the minimum in a fair way?
Might just as well put public offices up for bid with the highest bidder winning the election.
:-)
2007-07-24 09:42:31 · answer #2 · answered by Spock (rhp) 7 · 2⤊ 1⤋
No, we shouldn't. Because...at least in Florida...unless you make 50k-100k a year, it is nearly impossible to buy/build a home seeing as homes are going for the high 200k-300k. There are sooo many abandoned homes, unfinished homes because of mortgage companies going crazy with the interest rates. I don't think rich people should be the only one to vote.....that is ridiculous. I'm 21, have two jobs, I live by myself in a one bedroom apartment and I have trouble paying my bills every month...jobs do not pay enough wage to be able to LIVE without struggling.
2007-07-24 09:48:01 · answer #3 · answered by Flip-Flop Crazy Girl 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
No, had everyone started in this country equally maybe. I think slavery and discrimination has given the majority an unfair advantage. I think the only requirement should be that you pay taxes and abide by the law
2007-07-24 09:58:23 · answer #4 · answered by Bye-Partisan 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Hillary –
Like the Republican Party and Pat Robertson wouldn’t give every idiot conservative Christian in the country a square-foot of land, right?
Why don’t we have a rule that says you cannot be President unless you can find Iraq on a map and spell Afghanistan? If we had that rule we would not be in this mess.
2007-07-24 09:43:10 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
Absolutely, and while we are at it we should take the right away from women and minorities as well. (sarcasm) Society was a little different back in the 1700's than it is today.
2007-07-24 10:09:35 · answer #6 · answered by The Oracle of Delphi 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If you were trying to become a first time home owner , and If you could afford a home in my area..god bless you. No, it shouldn't be a requirement.
2007-07-24 09:39:40 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
And while your at it make it a requirement also that all voters must have a million dollars invested in the stock market.
Get real.
2007-07-24 09:42:03 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Well considering where lobbyists get their money to pass on to congress, i think we already have.
2007-07-25 01:54:34 · answer #9 · answered by avail_skillz 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes we should!!! It would be a great law!!!!
Those rich geeks that only rent in Jew York & Gaylifornia won't be able to vote!!!!
Most poor minorities don't vote anyway!!!
You are very educated....
2007-07-24 09:40:38 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 6⤋