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2007-07-23 22:07:54 · 11 answers · asked by The Knowledge Server 1 in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

11 answers

This question cannot be answered. The initial statement is true in cases where the subject of discussion breaks into two and only two mutually exclusive categories. For example, I will only wear either a black shirt or a green shirt. If I say "yes" to wearing the black, then I have implicitly said "no" to wearing the green (as long as I can choose and wear only ONE shirt of the two).

In cases that are not mutually exclusive, it does not necessarily mean that choosing one (ie., saying "yes") means not choosing the other (i.e., saying "no" to it). For example, if the choice is being gay or straight. If you say "yes" to being straight, then you are saying "no" to being gay; however, where does one fall that is bi-sexual and chooses both--in such a case, he/she is saying "yes" to both and is also saying "no" to both.

2007-07-23 22:51:12 · answer #1 · answered by Think 5 · 1 0

This is one of the problems associated with prayers being answered or ignored. If two parties to an issue pray for opposing outcomes, which should be granted assuming both are sincere and devout?

Saying yes to one implies no to the other.

Probably neither gets granted.

2007-07-24 12:54:24 · answer #2 · answered by A.V.R. 7 · 0 0

In the technical sense, that would be true. For a single given moment, by saying "yes" to a situation, you implicitly say "no" to its polar opposite. (By deciding to accept an invite to a party, you basically "say no" to refusing the invite.) Every single situation has a "positive' and "negative" option. You cannot logically do one action and its opposite at the exact same time.

2007-07-24 07:45:38 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Saying yes to one does not mean saying no to the other. You can accept work from both and complete it one by one.

2007-07-24 05:29:01 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

My opinion is no, not by logical necessity nor principle of physics, i.e. 'one' is a contingent condition, a word as variable.

2007-07-24 21:42:59 · answer #5 · answered by Psyengine 7 · 0 0

technically, but not necessarily. if you have to persons asking you yes or no, yes to the other means no another, but if one is asking, you'll be saying yes or no to only one person. =)

2007-07-24 05:50:33 · answer #6 · answered by the lioness 4 · 0 0

Im sorry I would love to help you but I just dont get it. check me out on myspace so you know who you are talking to cyndilouwhotoo

2007-07-24 05:17:34 · answer #7 · answered by spritekillebrew 2 · 0 0

Yes--can't think of a scenario in which it doesn't.

2007-07-24 05:27:31 · answer #8 · answered by mishka 2 · 0 0

Well i get confuse when people say do you mind

2007-07-24 05:11:22 · answer #9 · answered by cookie 3 · 0 0

Not if it's a "threesome..."

2007-07-24 05:28:46 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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