my ex and i were married in 93 in 98 we were givivg a divorce with child support and community property pending a child custudy evalution in 98 since we finish the evalution in 98 my ex dismiss her attorney and my attorney tried going to court but my ex never showed so it was suppose to be reschuled but the years passed with nothing ever happening so my question is we have a house valued at 160000 but i never made any payments since being ordered out of the house by the court in 98 and my ex contiued to make pymts. does this mean half the house is still belongs to me or does my ex get back the amount paid on the house from 98 until today and than the remaining money is split between the two of us.
2007-07-23 09:30:16 · 2 answers · asked by benny h 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
More than likely, your ex would get back whatever she paid out off the top of the sale. You would then get a percentage of whatever profit was left..it might not come up to half depending on how long you did pay into the house (if at all).
2007-07-23 09:36:19 · answer #1 · answered by Annie 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Community property is defined, and allocated, at the time of the marriage.
If the property has not been properly disposed of since the divorce, arguably any increase in value would be applied as community assets as well.
The laws vary by state, and the details (which are not included above) are very important to the legal analysis.
2007-07-23 16:57:09 · answer #2 · answered by coragryph 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋