can you explain the steps or how you did it... thank you very much...
2007-07-22 20:11:43 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
thank you so much for taking your time to answer my question, i got it! =d
2007-07-22 20:31:04 · update #1
I think the answer is: 1201.
These were the steps I took:
1) The greatest 'power' of 5 that was lower than 176 was 5^3, which is 125. only one 125 goes into 176, so the first digit is 1.
2) Subtract what remains from 176, (176 - 125), and you get 51. The greatest 'power' of 5 that is lower than 51 is 2, which yields 5^2 = 25. 2 'units' of 25 go into 51 (25 * 2 = 50, which is under 51), which is why the next digit is 2.
3) What remains is 51 - 50 = 1. And the next digit we work with is 5^1 = 5, but 5 doesn't go into 1, so that digit is zero.
4) What remains is still 1 (from the previous step). The last digit is 5^0 = 1, so only one unit of it is necessary, so the last digit is one.
Sorry, I hope this wasn't too confusing. I honestly tried my best.
2007-07-22 20:28:31 · answer #1 · answered by Aquaboy 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
5)176
. 5)35 r 1
. . 5)7 r 0
. .5)1 r 2
. . . 0 r 1
Reading up,
176 base 10 = 1201 base 5
check:
5^3 = 125
2*5^2 = 50
1*5^0 = 1
125 + 50 + 1 = 176
2007-07-23 03:23:02 · answer #2 · answered by Helmut 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
hey cool man u can answer this question if u know the conversion of a decimal number into binary dividing by 2 and putting all the remainders..
in the same way u start dividing the number by 5 and put the remainder aside answer is 701 do it by urself if u did not get then u msg me so tht i can sendu the steps.
2007-07-23 03:26:59 · answer #3 · answered by koooooooooooool 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Base 5 headings
125***25****5****1
**1****2****0****1
176 in base 5 is 1201
2007-07-23 04:03:16 · answer #4 · answered by Como 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋