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2007-07-22 18:28:33 · 17 answers · asked by Princess 2 in Society & Culture Cultures & Groups Other - Cultures & Groups

The southwestern part of the U.S once belonged to Mexico so what are they?

2007-07-22 18:36:41 · update #1

17 answers

Most Mexicans are "Native Americans". And many on the border share the same bloodline as the Native Americans in the U.S. for example the Pima Indians and various other tribes. And about 100 years ago a tribe of Native Americans from Wisconsin called the Kickapoo immigrated to Mexico and were welcomed into Mexico. People like to ignore these pesky little FACTS because they like to think the border is this clean straight line that separates us but it doesn't... it never has. THE TRUTH HURTS.

2007-07-22 18:42:56 · answer #1 · answered by CALAVA 5 · 0 6

The majority of Mexicans are in fact Mestizos. And historically speaking, the majority of Mexicans who emigrated to the US arrived from the Central and Northern regions of Mexico which are predominantly populated by Mestizos (who tend to posses a higher degree of European admixture). However, during the past decade, a larger number of Mexican immigrants have arrived from the Southern region of Mexico, like the states of Oaxaca and Chiapas, which tend to have populations with a higher degree of Native admixture. Perhaps your Mexican friends' families originated from those areas. After looking at those photos, it's obvious they're from an Indigenous Mexican community. In fact, on the far right edge of the last pic you posted, you can see a man wearing face paint and adorned with feathers.

2016-05-20 23:01:09 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

Archaeologist have found traces and ancient Aztec artifacts as far as Canada. For Example, in Cahokia near the Mississippin river many artifacts have been found that have an Aztec connection. They have also discovered pyramid shaped mounds and evidence of an Aztec cult of the death. In the Southwest, in Chaco Canyon feathers of tropical birds have been found, Chocolate residue, Aztec alcoholic beverage residue, Aztec serpent symbols and even evidence of human sacrifice.

Archaeologist tent have enough evidence to suggest a extensive trade route that extended from Central America, Mexico, the Carribean and as far north as Candada. Corn, Beans, Squash, pottery technology seem to have been brought to the north tribes from Mexico. Aztec Mexican ball courts can also be found all along the Southwest.

In addition to this evidence, linguistically all tribes in the Southwest, Great Basin, and Northwest Tribes all the way to present day Vancouver speak the same Ute-Aztecan Dialects that are spoken in Mexico and Central America. Many phrases and words have been remained unchanged as if they have contact within tribes for centuries.

Aztecs for example are believe to have also been Nomads that entered Mexico from the United States as a band of mercenaries who conquered southern Mexican tribes.


What the devided the tribes were polical boubdaries created by Europeans (Spanish, English, and French) Before that Indians went anywhere as nomads.

There are Cherokees, Seminoles and Potawatomi, Navajo, Apache, Yaqui Indians in Mexico too as in the United States.

Indians have travel all over the place b4 Europeans arrive, so check what you say because what you claim is not true.

Indians in Canada, and US speak English because they were forced. The same for Indians in Mexico and Latin America they were force to learn Spanish and take Spanish names.

60% of the population of Mexico is mixed with Indian and Spanish. 30% is pure Indian. 8% is pure White 2% is other including some Blacks.

Mexico's Population is more than 100 Million so do the Math. there are about 30-40 Million pure Indians in Mexico speaking about 23 Native American languages. There are over 600 Tribes and bands of Indians in Mexico who still live like b4 the Spanish arrive.

So what country has more Indians? USA with barely 1.2 million Indians or Mexico who has
30+ Million Indians?

Where did genocide occur? Who killed the Indians, the Spanish or the English?

Why is Peru, Guatemala, Honduras and Bolivia consider Indian Nations with populations over 95% pure Indian with no Spanish blood?

2014-01-28 08:39:02 · answer #3 · answered by William O 2 · 1 0

One must be an enrolled member/citizen of a federally recognized tribe in order to receive "benefits." (I put benefits in quotations because I want people to know that the benefits are pitiful few - no monthly checks from the government as many people believe.) Mexicans do not get "benefits" because they are not enrolled members/citizens of a US federally recognized tribe.

2007-07-24 05:29:38 · answer #4 · answered by Brings Light 6 · 1 0

In a nutshell, because of where the colonial powers drew the border. The US did not create treaties with the natives of Mexico.

Not all American natives get benefits; unrecognized/non-treaty natives (yes, they exist) got Nada.

2007-07-22 18:37:07 · answer #5 · answered by kent_shakespear 7 · 4 1

The Mexicans took thier land from the Aztecs big deal..Mexico really needs to get serious about rasing the standard of living in thier country.

2007-07-22 18:42:34 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

My grandma is Creole (French, Indian, Black), and she would be upset if you even told her that you thought Mexicans were Native Americans, b/c that is so not true.
Anyway, Mexicans are not Native Americans period!!!

2007-07-22 18:55:21 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2 2

Try saying that to an Native American and they will give you your answer.

2007-07-22 18:46:14 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

mexicans are citizens of mexico not united states
there americans

2007-07-22 18:30:40 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

what about the people who emigrated to Mexico from Spain? They're considered Mexican.

Mexico wasn't exempt from colonialism either.

2007-07-22 18:31:14 · answer #10 · answered by bigtalltom 6 · 2 1

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