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If baby "A" and "B" are boys, what is the chance of baby "C" being a boy? And, finally, if baby "A" is a boy and baby "B" is a girl, what chance is the chance of baby "C" being a boy?

2007-07-22 17:46:13 · 10 answers · asked by Twilight.Me (Nyx) 5 in Science & Mathematics Other - Science

10 answers

50% for every answer.

chance of having 2 boys ina row 1/2x1/2=1/4

if you said what is the chance of having 3 boys in a row, the answer would be 1/2x1/2x1/2 =1/6

2007-07-22 17:55:45 · answer #1 · answered by zanthus 5 · 1 2

let this be an ideal situation. in that case the chances are 50% that the baby is a boy. Also these are independent events( i.e. it does not depend or influence the fact that baby "A" was a boy.)
Even if Baby "A" was a girl the probability for baby "B" being a boy is still the same 50%. Well how did we conclude its 50%...simple. There are only 2 chances either a boy or a girl. So the probability is split up between both.

2007-07-22 20:46:42 · answer #2 · answered by Migin V 1 · 2 0

The chance of baby "C" being a boy is always 50%. The probability of it happening is not affected by previous events.

For example if you flip a coin 100 times and get 99 heads, your 100th flip still has a 50% chance of being heads again, even though the last 99 were heads.

2007-07-22 17:48:33 · answer #3 · answered by Andrew 4 · 3 0

50% is correct if they are independent events. Biologically, they are not independent events. For some couples, their physiology and mating practices make the chance of having a boy 80-90%. Having a baby isn't nearly as simple as flipping a coin.

2007-07-22 20:15:57 · answer #4 · answered by Frank N 7 · 3 0

It's always going to be 50/50. Each child's gender will not affect the subsequent child's gender. It just matters which sperm fertilizes the egg, whether that sperm has another X chromosome or a Y chromosome. It's all up to chance.

2007-07-22 17:50:01 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

If your talking about the chance that a woman will continue to have boys for example.....as in...let's say a woman has 10 boys. The chance that she will have 11 can be high or low depending on how you look at it. From the stand point that she's on a roll with boys...you might decide the 11th child will probably be a boy, but playing the odds, her luck with boys has got to run out at some point.

2007-07-22 19:30:15 · answer #6 · answered by Fieyr 4 · 0 2

50%. The fact that you already had one has no effect on the next choice. They are independent. It's like flipping a penny. Your chances of getting heads next time is always 50%, no matter how many times heads has already come up.

2007-07-22 17:49:28 · answer #7 · answered by eri 7 · 2 0

50%

2007-07-22 17:54:49 · answer #8 · answered by david d 5 · 1 0

50% these events are independent

2007-07-23 06:50:58 · answer #9 · answered by koki83 4 · 0 0

always 50%

2007-07-22 17:53:47 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

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