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I am doing this response paper on the first women's right convention. I have to answer questions and such. i don't have time to read the whole original US Const. does anyone who has read it more recently know where it says only white male land owners had rights? Please help me out.

2007-07-22 09:53:52 · 10 answers · asked by Miss 1 in Politics & Government Other - Politics & Government

10 answers

Race isn't mentioned at all.

Gender is only mentioned in the 14th Amendment, Section 2:

"But when the right to vote at any election ... is denied to any of the male inhabitants of such State, being twenty-one years of age, and citizens of the United States, or in any way abridged, except for participation in rebellion, or other crime, the basis of representation therein shall be reduced in the proportion which the number of such male citizens shall bear to the whole number of male citizens twenty-one years of age in such State."

Basically, it says that the right to vote cannot be denied to males. Which by implications says that states can deny it to females.

2007-07-22 09:56:30 · answer #1 · answered by coragryph 7 · 2 0

Well it doesn't say that specifically it is mentioned only by ommission and inference. Every group in the US including many white male groups by the way have had to continually work for their rights, even today. The thought that the common people have rights in the US is an illusion whatever their race or gender.

The poster: "mo" above is extremely ignorant of the facts. She's confusing documents (Constitution with the Declaration of Independence), disregard her response.

What you are looking for though is information on the Women's Sufferage Movement. Please look at my link below:

2007-07-22 10:04:43 · answer #2 · answered by Jon C 2 · 0 0

Limits, such as the right to vote being restricted to property owners, to men, to payment of poll tax, to literacy tests, to religious restrictions, were state laws, not dictated by the Constitution.

Btw, "all men are created equal" is from the Declaration of Independence, not the Constitution.

2007-07-22 10:03:30 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The US Constitution has never said that only white male land owners had rights. Anyone who said that it ever said that lies.

Other documents and laws implied that but the US Constitution never did!

The damn fools who claim the use of men forget that until feminism became widespread man was used to stand for the human race. Note. it is human race not huwoman race! Damn people grow up.

2007-07-22 09:58:01 · answer #4 · answered by Coasty 7 · 1 2

It isn't mentioned at all. However their are expired clauses in the constitution that support slavery. However the constitution doesn't distinguish between race when it mentions the right of men, they left the just "white men" part out.

2007-07-22 09:58:52 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The 13th amendment formally abolished slavery in the United States.

The 15th Amendment to the Constitution granted African American men the right to vote.

2007-07-22 10:08:19 · answer #6 · answered by sweetness 2 · 0 1

I've read that when it was said "all men are created equal" that was in reference to whites. Blacks were not referenced to as men at the time, but slaves/negroes. Hope this helps a little.

2007-07-22 09:58:04 · answer #7 · answered by el88gringo 3 · 0 1

That's an excellent question and am curious to know the answer myself.

2007-07-22 09:58:34 · answer #8 · answered by You wish 4 · 0 0

yes

nd its still is kinda sad becuz the constitution states " that all men are created equal" i think they shud get rid of it....but of course they added an ammendment saying that women had equal rights as men

2007-07-22 09:57:30 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

we don't need the constitution to know what belongs to us.

2007-07-22 10:07:35 · answer #10 · answered by ati-atihan 6 · 0 0

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