2007-07-22 08:29:22 · 16 answers · asked by stlsigma2 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
These answers are stupid. These are the same people that always want to refer to the Constituiton on other crap. Conservative America is full of it.
2007-07-22 08:35:55 · update #1
So what. You have them now, so whats the beef. Women had even less rights, so get over it.
2007-07-22 08:32:06 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
Wow such a pathetic attempt at whining. Now I realize the new masters of the Black race, you know Sharpton, Jackson, the ACLU and NAACP are still trying to stir up as much racial tension as possible you would think that black people would have become smarter by now.
The people that actually had NO rights when the constitution was written were women but we've overcompensated in the US at every turn and tend to give people more than their due when guilt gets involved. Now run along and learn your history.
I will thank you for one thing though. Not using the cop out African-American. Hyphenates are the dumbest of the dumb. Either you're American or your not.
2007-07-22 16:02:24 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
Well, Americans SHOULD expect better grammar than yours.
As others have pointed out, there was NO mention of race in neither the Declaration of Independence nor Constitution (as first written and ratified). Also, there were MANY free-blacks in the Northern Colonies in the 1770-1800's
Also recall, that at the time of the ratification of the US Constitution, no one had "rights" per se other than males over the age of 21.
And as others have pointed out... the Constitution was written on paper, not engraved in stone: it is written with the ability for amendments to be written and ratified.
Slavery was abolished by The 13th Amendment in 1865.
Citizenship / Rights are given to all in the 14th Amendment in 1868.
Racial Voting restrictions are abolished by the 15th Amendment in 1870. (and reinforced by the 24th Amendment in 1961)
WOMEN are given the vote in 1920 with the 19th Amendment, and those of the age of 18 and up are given the vote with the 26th Amendment in 1971.
SO, I suppose more Americans should wonder WHEN liberal revisionists are going to recognize that we have corrected the LEGAL errors... the rest falls under personal responsibility.
2007-07-22 16:17:26 · answer #3 · answered by mariner31 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Because that hasn't been an issue for 140 years.....
And sure, you can remember that things were different 230 years ago. Nobody is saying to erase the past.
But that doesn't mean living in the past, and forgetting that we changed the Constitution 140 years ago either.
Remember the past, but live in the present.
~~~~~
EDIT: And as a side note, you are incorrect about Blacks not having any rights. The Constitution allowed slavery, but did not make any distinctions based on race. Race isn't even mentioned.
2007-07-22 15:32:53 · answer #4 · answered by coragryph 7 · 3⤊ 1⤋
The Constitution is a breathing living document that can change with the times. Are you really trying to look at 1700's colonial America through 21st centuary train of thought. If so your an idiot. Perhaps for your next question you can replace blacks with woman. Times change our Constitution changes with them even by staying the same.
2007-07-22 15:34:03 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Slaves had no rights. Not all blacks were slaves. Not all slaves were black. NO one currently alive actually remembers anything about the time when the Constitution was written. Unless you are more than 200 years old, you were not alive at the time. Given the current state of public school, I don't expect most people ever learned anything about that part of history.
2007-07-22 15:35:54 · answer #6 · answered by STEVEN F 7 · 3⤊ 1⤋
Though I do not really understand your question, I think a lot of people do not like to point out that fact. I am white but I am not racist however raising that point could be construed to mean that the constitution does not apply to black people. Since black's were considered property at that time, the original intent did not seem to apply to them . Fortunately times have changed and all men are truly equal under the law now.
2007-07-22 15:42:46 · answer #7 · answered by ponderer 2 · 1⤊ 2⤋
people dont realize, that those same laws still apply today. if a melenated person claiming he is black has the name of his ancestors slave owners, he is an alien by law! not an american citizen. blacks should have diplomatic rights. soverns! if you think that we are free in america, you are surely mistaken. the papacy still rules! when you have a birth cirtificate, and social security number, you are a ward of the state. your parents just gave you to the state, legally. everyone are slaves to a point today. the government should be scared of the people not how it iz today.
2007-07-24 01:28:07 · answer #8 · answered by ganoe y 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The only part of the constitution that deals with race is the amendment which outlawed any distinction between races.
It was also written before there were corporations, telephones, airplanes, or ipods. It really doesn't make a difference.
2007-07-22 15:51:51 · answer #9 · answered by Steve B 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Well I would say because times have changed and we need to go with the flow of the new generation and this is a new date a new state and the world has evolved since back in the days of old.
2007-07-22 15:33:34 · answer #10 · answered by yahoo 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
get over it if you don't like the Constitution you can always go live in Africa and see how you like that. just be happy your living in a country that gives you the freedonm to make choices and ask these kinds of questions
2007-07-22 15:40:50 · answer #11 · answered by plhudson01 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋