2007-07-21 09:35:30 · 6 answers · asked by Adolf Schmichael 5 in Politics & Government ➔ Government
So there weren't term limits back in his day?
2007-07-21 09:40:59 · update #1
umm you answered your own question.
2007-07-21 11:24:09 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is the 22nd amendment to the constitution passed in 1951. Before FDR no president served more than two terms, basically for the reason many felt that our first president - Washington set the criteria by only serving two when he could have been re-elected. FDR felt in the view of many that due to the war in Europe and the Pacific that a change in office would hinder the war effort.
2007-07-21 10:03:19 · answer #2 · answered by ALASPADA 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Until the late 1940's there was no section in the Constitution setting the maxiumum Presidential term at two. The Republicans were angry enough with Mr. Roosevelt that they passed an amendment to prevent any future President from serving more than two terms. Many historians say that Republican President Eisenhower was so popular that he, too, could have run for as many terms as he wanted and would have won.
2007-07-21 10:09:21 · answer #3 · answered by jxt299 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
He was re-elected so many times that term limits were put in to prevent that sort of thing from happening again. Trivia: Harry Truman, FDR's vice president and successor, was the last president to serve without being restricted by term limits, but he didn't choose to go beyond terms.
2007-07-21 09:47:22 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
He was re-elected. But he's the reason we now have a term limit on the office.
2007-07-21 09:39:58 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
in those times there were no limits on terms as there are now and it is because of his popularity that we have those limits in place now so one man does not threaten being a dictator even if well liked by the voters
2007-07-21 11:42:50 · answer #6 · answered by billc4u 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋