well just curious about this specific law
well say hypothetically a guy did crime X and that crime has a statute of limitations of say 5 years but then then next week a law was passed saying there is no more statute of limitations for that crime.
so im wondering does the guy no longer have the statute of limitations for that crime or does he still have the 5 year?
thanks in advance
2007-07-20 08:13:45 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Many people hear don't know what they're talking about.
It would all depend on the wording of the second law. It makes no difference whether the second SOL is shorter or longer. If it says it overrides the first, then it does.
2007-07-20 09:01:56 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
A statute of limitations says that criminal proceedings must commence (start) within a certain time after the crime was committed, or after the police should reasonably have discovered a crime was committed.
Laws can shorten the statute of limitations for crimes already committed (thus making it harder to prosecute) by they cannot increase the allowed period after the crime was committed.
2007-07-20 08:25:57 · answer #2 · answered by coragryph 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The statute of limitations that affects you is the one in force when you committed your crime.
2007-07-20 08:20:44 · answer #3 · answered by Atavacron 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It depends upon the wording of the law and whether it makes it retroactive to offenses that occurred prior to enactment. The new law could apply if it specifically says so.
2007-07-20 08:17:23 · answer #4 · answered by John W 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If the law changed and there is not statue of limitation, then I think he is screwed. I do not know for sure, but I think you can check at http://www.findlaw.com
Hope this helps.
2007-07-20 08:22:41 · answer #5 · answered by burrell_cn 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋