is the game over even if the runner on first was just watching the play at the plate instead of tagging up himself? Or can the catcher now throw it to first and get the runner originally at first out to end the inning without the run that score counting?
2007-07-20 05:37:36 · 17 answers · asked by Den-O 1 in Sports ➔ Baseball
Over. Runner at first doesn't have to tag up
SAFE AT HOME:game over
2007-07-20 05:40:26 · answer #1 · answered by wizjp 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
This is the same as when a hitter hits a double or triple with two outs and is thrown out at a base before a runner scores. (Which has happened)
It all depends if the run scores before the 3rd out is recorded. As others have stated if the runner on first is doubled off before the run scores, the run doesn't count.
This almost happened in a Mets game in which the batter hit a DEEP sac fly and the outfielder just gunned it toward the infield. The runner scored JUST ahead of the ball getting back to first to double off the runner who was acting like an idiot celebrating almost a little too early.
2007-07-20 07:10:02 · answer #2 · answered by G J 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The run counts. The game is over. The play is not a force play; therefore, it is a time play. The team could get the appeal the play, but the run would still count since the runner scored before the play was made at first.
2007-07-20 06:43:49 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
NO the catcher cannot. Even if he appeals the runner at first leaving early it is an appeal and time play. Thus, the runner from third scored before the appeal at first was sustained. The run would count anyway.
2007-07-20 10:03:50 · answer #4 · answered by david w 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes the game is over. The runner at 1st can stay if he wants. Sometimes you will see this and the ball is hit foul and they wont catch the ball and just let it fall. So the runner cant tag up and score the winning run
2007-07-20 07:30:16 · answer #5 · answered by eJay 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Sam's new answer is right, per 2.00. No runs score when the 3rd out is a force out--if the runner had to advance and was put out. Since the batter was put out, the runnner could stay at first. This is called a timing play, what counts is what came first, the out or the run, and here the run counts.
2007-07-20 06:50:12 · answer #6 · answered by DaM 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I am completely changing my answer. You made me search for this one, and I finally found it under the definitions section of the MLB rules. The run would count.
A FORCE PLAY is a play in which a runner legally loses his right to occupy a base by reason of the batter becoming a runner.
Rule 2.00 (Force Play)
Example: Not a force out. One out. Runner on first and third. Batter flies out. Two out. Runner on third tags up and scores. Runner on first tries to retouch before throw from fielder reaches first baseman, but does not get back in time and is out. Three outs. If, in umpire’s judgment, the runner from third touched home before the ball was held at first base, the run counts.
2007-07-20 05:40:59 · answer #7 · answered by Sam N 3 · 3⤊ 1⤋
If the runner at first failed to tag up and the then forced out because of it, the run would not count and the game would not be over.
2007-07-20 05:49:58 · answer #8 · answered by I play the game 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋
if the runner at first was off the base when the ball was caught, and didnt tag up, the catcher (or outfielder) could throw the ball to first and get the guy at first out, only if he didnt tag up. if he tug up and was running to 2nd, it would be a matter of whether the run scored first or the runner running to 2nd got out first.
2007-07-20 05:43:07 · answer #9 · answered by mike 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Over. Home team wins
the runner on 1st doesnt mean squat once the run scores
2007-07-20 06:12:15 · answer #10 · answered by TheSandMan 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is a time play. Because the run scored before the defense could record the third out, the game is over.
2007-07-20 08:32:22 · answer #11 · answered by Ryan R 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋