2007-07-20 05:02:21 · 14 answers · asked by ? 5 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
Of course there is, it needs to be mastered like the art of sarcasm. It is not an easy stance to take, as one must remove themselves more often than not, when they are right in the middle of the issue that needs to be dealt with objectively. Between a rock and a hard place, as the saying goes.
2007-07-20 07:12:27 · answer #1 · answered by Hot Coco Puff 7 · 13⤊ 0⤋
There's certainly such a thing as a lack of objectivity.
Second-guessing the flip side of it probably is only the business of the one attempting to be objective.
2007-07-20 13:10:34 · answer #2 · answered by Jack P 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
there is no such thing as objectivity, because everything is rooted through perceptions of people.
How ever if you only state fact, you get closer to the objectiveness. how ever the way you interpreted the fact, or experience the fact, taints it again.
2007-07-20 13:06:31 · answer #3 · answered by ramas001 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It is impossible to be completely objective about any subject. Each of us because of our environment, upbringing, and associates have formed opinions that have an affect on the way we think and behave. This prevents us from viewing a matter on its merits only.
2007-07-20 13:48:24 · answer #4 · answered by scotishbob 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I believe that the concept of objectivity is valid, but that humans are incapable of being truly objective. By nature, people will form opinions and have bias, not to mention be influenced by any number of factors which they may or may not be aware of.
2007-07-20 12:21:45 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
I don't think so.
It could be possible for a sociopath or psychopath...someone devoid of emotion. But, it's generally difficult to analyze something without interjecting personal bias.
2007-07-20 12:05:30 · answer #6 · answered by mochi mochi 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Of course.
You can't know if something is subjective if you don't have the objective to distinguish it from.
2007-07-20 12:55:19 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes, but as to biased and un-biased objectivity, that is another question.
2007-07-20 12:14:44 · answer #8 · answered by Sophist 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Personal prejudices are objectivity, which can be over-ruled,
2007-07-20 12:19:53 · answer #9 · answered by Muthu S 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Only if we think completely logical, it is the emotional that gets in the way.
2007-07-20 12:10:24 · answer #10 · answered by Steve C 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋