You have to use the chain rule because 2x is still a function of x.
the derivative of sec(2x)
= sec(2x)tan(2x)(2)
2007-07-19 16:47:58
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answer #1
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answered by sahsjing 7
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This Site Might Help You.
RE:
Do you use the chain rule for the derivative of sec(2x)?
If you don't, wouldnt it be sec2xtan2x?
But if you do, and its in a problem where u already used the chain rule, you do the chain rule again?
ex.) (sec2x)/(1+tan2x)
2015-08-13 05:22:32
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answer #2
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answered by Raff 1
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You do for the 2x part.
The derivative is:
sec2xtan2x (2) = 2 sec2x tan2x
2007-07-19 16:55:03
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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Derivative Of Sec2x
2016-10-01 10:37:55
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answer #4
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answered by ? 4
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I think d/dx = 2 sec 2x tan 2x
but it's been a long time!
2007-07-19 16:52:42
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answer #5
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answered by ktm 3
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It appears to be:
2Sec[2x]Tan[2x]
according to this source:
http://integrals.wolfram.com/index.jsp
The Wolfram Integrator
(but I don't know why)
2007-07-19 17:21:34
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answer #6
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answered by winter_new_hampshire 4
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chain rule derivative sec 2x: https://tinyurl.im/e/do-you-use-the-chain-rule-for-the-derivative-of-sec-2x
2015-05-14 14:52:33
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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y = sec 2x = 1/cos2x
Derivative y = u/v
y' = [(cos2x)(0) - (1)(-2sin2x)]/ [cos^2 (2x)]
y' = 2sin2x / [cos^2 (2x)]
y' = 2[sin2x / cos2x] [1/cos2x]
y' = 2 tan2x sec2x
2007-07-19 21:59:26
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answer #8
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answered by cllau74 4
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This is THE question regarding the chain rule.
First, keep in mind that: dx/dx = 1
now let v=g(u) and u=f(x)
dv/dv = 1
dv/du = dv/du * du/du = dv/du * 1 = v'(u)
dv/dx = dv/du * du/dx * dx/dx = dv/du * du/dx * 1 = v'(u) * u'(x)
In your problem, your v = g(u) is
v=sec(u) u=2x
so do dv/du -or v'(u), or d/du sec(u) - times du/dx -or u'(x) or d/dx (2x) -
2007-07-19 16:56:35
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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I make it a practice to avoid the chain rule at all costs. Now the platypus rule, that is the one which should be applied for your problem.
2007-07-19 16:48:20
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answer #10
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answered by J J 3
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