I've been wondering how to spell the last name Farkas, if I was was trying to describe the family as a group. Or showing ownership. I know you're supposed to spell any name ending in "s" with an apostrophe after it, like in Bibcal names like Jesus' or Moses' but would you do the same to the last name of Farkas?
Like in this sentence. "Did you meet the Farkas's?" Or should it be , "Did you meet the Farkas'?" Can anyone tell be the correct way of doing this. I'm confused. Thanks.
2007-07-19 09:21:38 · 7 answers · asked by Hollywood 2 in Education & Reference ➔ Words & Wordplay
Farkas is the name.
Farkases is plural which would be the entire family.
Farkas' means that that family owns something.
2007-07-19 10:13:45 · answer #1 · answered by Me2 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Your example questions don't show ownership and you don't use an apostrophe in describing a group of people. You add s or es when talking about a family as a group.
Did you meet the Farkases? would be the correct way of writing the sentence.
For possesive it would use the apostrophe after the s from the name.
Is this the Farkas' house? or Did you meet the Farkas' dog?
2007-07-19 16:30:48 · answer #2 · answered by kclark747 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There wouldn't be any apostrophe if you are trying to refer to the family - they would be the Farkases. An apostrophe is only used to show ownership (this is John Farkas's car, or This is the Farkas' house) when it comes to proper names.
2007-07-19 16:26:07 · answer #3 · answered by neniaf 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It would be the Farkas'...thats how it always goes nomatter what the name if it ends in s, you don't ad an 's just an '
2007-07-19 16:24:18 · answer #4 · answered by prplfae 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
it would be Farkas'; you already have an "s" at the end of your name so you don't need to add another one.
2007-07-19 16:23:55 · answer #5 · answered by despopolador10 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Either can be used, but it looks neater to use Farkas'
2007-07-19 16:24:39 · answer #6 · answered by Lozza 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
farkas'
2007-07-19 16:23:15 · answer #7 · answered by Darce 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋