no. if for example v1 and v2 are negative, then v will be less than both.
2007-07-19 06:27:18
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answer #1
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answered by kaiwan58 3
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No, not if one or both of the addends are negative. If V1 = -5 and V2 = -6, then V = V1 + V2 = (-5) + (-6) = -11, so V < V1 and V< V2. However, if V1 > 0 and V2 > 0, then V > V1 and V > V2.
2007-07-19 06:27:50
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answer #2
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answered by DavidK93 7
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What the heck is the question?
V has to be greater than at least one of the numbers.
V1 can be greater than V, which means V2 would have to be negative. If V2 is negative than V is greater than V2.
If V=V1 + V2
V - V1 = V2, If V1 > V, then V2 is negative, which means V > V2 as V
V - V2 = V1, If V2 < V, V1 can be either < or > V...how? Well if V2 & V are positive, V1 would be < V. If V2 is negative and V is positive, it would be positive minus a negative, which would be positive + positive which would mean V1 > V.
2007-07-19 06:29:18
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answer #3
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answered by thoughtdream 2
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No. Consider that these are vectors. Suppose that V1 is 5 North and V2 is 4 South. The V is 1 North.
2007-07-19 06:27:33
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answer #4
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answered by Scott H 3
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Are we talking about vectors or scalars here? With vectors, direction would matter as well as magnitude. If we are talking about scalars, V is not necessarily greater than V1 and/or V2. If both are negative, V is less than both V1 and V2. If we are talking vectors, there is a directional dependence so this statement is not necessarily true.
2007-07-19 08:19:14
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answer #5
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answered by msi_cord 7
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no unless you restrict V1 and V2 to be >= 0. Now it is true that the distance of V is > than the distance of V1 and/or V2
2007-07-19 07:11:17
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answer #6
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answered by haggismoffat 5
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v=+ or v=- either v1 or v2
so 50 %?
2007-07-19 06:27:56
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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The same question shows up again
2016-08-24 09:13:18
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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Is what necessarily greater?
2007-07-19 06:25:05
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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orientation is relevant
2007-07-19 07:32:43
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answer #10
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answered by throbbin 3
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