2007-07-19 05:41:37 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Biology
As in like, how would it work inside the body (like the Pill for women) not any other moral issues etc... It's for biology.
2007-07-19 05:54:51 · update #1
I think that lots of men would claim to be on it even though they weren't .
I predict a change in the law as a result. Perhaps a rape-by-deception statute or something?
2007-07-19 05:50:00 · answer #1 · answered by David S 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It would have to stop spermatogenesis chemically. Currently there is no corresponding chemical that works in the male as in the female as in hormonal changes that effect oogenesis. Males can produce sperm way into the 80s, but atrophy does and can occur. If you block the function of the Leydig and Sertoli cells within the testicular parenchyma, spermatogenesis will stop. This can be indeed produced chemically, however it is irreversible.
2007-07-19 13:16:07 · answer #2 · answered by Mark C 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It should work 'Contaceptively' ie by either by killing or disabling the Sperms.Rest is a routine fun.
2007-07-19 12:51:48 · answer #3 · answered by brkshandilya 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
very mystically
2007-07-19 12:49:06 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋