I need an explanation of perpendicular slopes. if a line that is slope is m, why is its perpendicular line slope -1/m ? Why is it oppisite or the reciprical?
2007-07-19 05:36:08 · 3 answers · asked by dnbozo 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
think about it graphically. if one line has slope 2, then the one which is perpendicular to that must be -1/2
2007-07-19 05:42:39 · answer #1 · answered by throbbin 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
whilst 2 lines are parallel to a minimum of one yet another, meaning that they have the comparable slope, your m fee. think of approximately this, in case you draw 2 lines parallel to a minimum of one yet another on graph paper, it is not important the place you draw. see you later as they are parallel, then they might have the comparable upward thrust/Run ratio (it is the slope or m fee). whilst 2 lines are perpendicular to a minimum of one yet another, meaning the slopes are the choice, or inverse, of another. Inverse ability that as quickly as 2 numbers are stronger by making use of one yet another, it equals destructive one. So, if we've a line with a slope of three/2, then the perpendicular line would have an inverse slope. we are in a position to set this up with an unknown fee of x. 3/2 * x = -a million. fixing for x shows that the unknown slope is -2/3.
2016-12-14 13:35:43 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the product of the slopes gives minus one
2007-07-19 05:40:50 · answer #3 · answered by iyiogrenci 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋