this technically wouldnt meen that you wer sharing that song. I think the song has to be different to a certain level to be classed as your own music, and im sure if you play the song backwards it would be different enough. The person on the recieving end could then convert the music back to the normal way around. anybody know?
2007-07-18 23:52:58 · 2 answers · asked by Gareth R 2 in Entertainment & Music ➔ Music ➔ Other - Music
You are still using a copy of the same recording, reversing it doesn't change that.
In fact you are breaking more laws by tampering with the recording without permission
2007-07-18 23:55:22 · answer #1 · answered by Weatherman 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
I shouldn't think so - any judge with any sense would see that you're still achieving the same ends. Besides, reversing it is ONE change - it's pretty much the same as saying adding reverb is making it a different song. However, it's a pretty grey area as to exactly HOW different it has to be - but I'd say you're trying your luck if you attempt it.
2007-07-19 00:34:09 · answer #2 · answered by Mordent 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋