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Some of you misunderstood the question last time I posted it. I mean at any given time, not on a constant basis. I mean to say that if a woman has sex with a guy ONE TIME, and ONE TIME only, what are the chances that she will be pregnant from him?

That's what "at any random time" means...

2007-07-18 06:54:28 · 26 answers · asked by dosahyd f 2 in Pregnancy & Parenting Pregnancy

UPDATE: AT ANY RANDOM TIME MEANS TO CALCULATE BOTH THE TIMES SHE IS INFERTILE AND FERTILE AND GIVE AN OVERALL PERCENTAGE.

2007-07-18 06:58:54 · update #1

26 answers

most women are only fertile 2 day a month ...with an exceptional few that a fertile 2-9 days a month.

2007-07-18 06:57:21 · answer #1 · answered by vivid_angel79 2 · 0 0

If you assume total randomness, the probability of hitting the most fertile 3 days in the 28-day cycle is 11%. However, considering that an average couple, when trying to conceive, has an 85% chance, and that about 50% of conceptions end before pregnancy is even noted, the answer is a bit lower.

The chances of a viable pregnancy if you had two people on the street have unprotected sex randomly would be about 5%.

Don't even think about using odds such as this as contraception, though. Each case is different, and stats can do funny things.

2007-07-18 14:00:25 · answer #2 · answered by sword_and_shield1 4 · 1 0

Total guess here, but here goes:

A woman's cycle is generally 28-32 days, let's call it 30 on average.
Sperm can live 2-3 days in the woman's body. The egg only has 12-24 hours to be fertilized before it 'dies'..

So, given those facts, lets' assume a woman has 3-4 days every month she can actually be impregnated, given sperm's life and all- that means a 7.5-10% chance of becoming pregnant if she has sex at any 'random' time, given everyone is healthy.


Again, not scientific, but a guesstimate, and way too high a # to mess around if you don't wish to become pregnant, in my book.

2007-07-18 14:08:48 · answer #3 · answered by magy 6 · 0 0

Without protection? In a way it is 50-50. She either will or she won't. Statistically it is likely around a 10% chance if you factor everything in, but this is a loaded question. It can happen the first time, easily, and it depends heavily on WHEN you have sex and with WHOM. Is the girl ovulating? How old is she? How much sperm does the guy generate? What position did they do it in? Etc. Etc. Etc. In the best case likelihood... she can STILL get pregnant. You can figure out a random time likelihood, but it will be meaningless and just that: random.

2007-07-18 14:02:58 · answer #4 · answered by Mr. Taco 7 · 0 0

what matters is the period of time you are ovulating. I believe its a week or so, plus the time the sperm can live inside you just before you ovulate. So I would say, roughly, a 25% chance if you pay no attention to your monthly cycle whatsoever. But, if you want to improve your changes of not getting pregnant, take your temperature every day for a few months and chart it along with the start and end of your period. Your temperature will rise when you are ovulating. So, unless you are ill during the three months, you begin to see a pattern to your cycle and can get a sense of when in your monthly cycle you are most fertile.

Obviously, you should use birth control or abstinance to prevent unwanted pregnancy because this, the rythm method, is notoriously imprecise.

2007-07-18 14:00:18 · answer #5 · answered by John M 7 · 0 0

In 28 days there are about 5 days that are possible for a woman to conceave, not to mention that sperm live for up to a week inside a womans body. One thing to remember though not all women have a 28day cycle, some are 32 some are 22days, so having sex with a women with out protection gives you about a 50/50 chance that egg won't meet sperm.

2007-07-18 14:06:30 · answer #6 · answered by TransDude78 3 · 0 0

Honey, it takes one time to get pregnant and even higher chances if she's in her fertile days or even during her period. Yes, some women can et pregnant during the period.

It takes one time to get pregnant and a lifetime to regret it if you didn't want it.

The pull out method doesn't work at all. There is the belief that if a man pulls out before ejaculating there are not chances of getting pregnant, BUT the truth is that even during foreplay the secretions on the penis may contain semen. If the penis touches the vaginal area and even witout intercourse those suckers can climb up to the egg if present and fertilize it.

The surprise will be jaw dropping ya know.

2007-07-18 14:09:42 · answer #7 · answered by cruisechloe 4 · 0 1

If you don't know a woman's cycle than it is 50/50. Knowing her cycle lowers your risk, but not totally. Cycles can change up for many different reasons. There are many who have concieved while religiously keeping track in order not to concieve. Also, although you may have had sex before she ovulated, sperm will live in her body for up to 5 days. If she ovulates within this time, there could very well be live sperm ready for it.

2007-07-18 14:14:11 · answer #8 · answered by mel1026 3 · 0 0

During ovulation, which occurs 10-14 days from the day you start your period. Ex. say you get your period on the first of the month your ovulation could start on the 11th making you pretty fertile for say..the next 3 days.

2007-07-18 13:57:36 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

either way you say it a woman's chances are about 50/50 every time she has unprotected sex. But the best chance is the 2 weeks before her next period.When she is ovulating.

2007-07-18 14:03:54 · answer #10 · answered by Iknowalittle 6 · 0 0

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