2007-07-18 06:04:22 · 5 answers · asked by Preston S 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
When they are incompetent, mentally or intellectually.
When its done to harrass the victims.
When it would cause undue delay in the proceedings.
2007-07-18 06:32:48 · answer #1 · answered by professorc 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
If there is more than one defendant being tried at the same time, the judge should not let one defendant represent himself for fear of consequences to the other defendant.
The only other reason is the mental incompetence of the defendant. This is complicated, because in some states, it means the defendant has to be incompetent in a general sense. In some states, it is a question of being unable to understand the legal proceedings and applicable rules and standards. And some kind of blend the two.
The US Constitution raises the bar pretty high to allow a judge to deny a defendant the right to represent himself. In some situations, the judge may appoint a lawyer that the defendant is required to consult, although is not obligated to take the lawyer's advice or information.
2007-07-18 13:13:41 · answer #2 · answered by thylawyer 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
A man who represents himself has a fool for a client
2007-07-18 13:21:22 · answer #3 · answered by Princess 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
when they prove themself an idiot.....
2007-07-18 13:14:46 · answer #4 · answered by DennistheMenace 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
when they are incompetent.
2007-07-18 13:07:19 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋