OK so the court orders indemnity costs when there has been a Calderbank offer - an offer of compromise, as long as the party that made the offer is better of after the judgement. There is logic there, but why isnt Indemnity costs always awarded? Should Lawyers refund the difference between the costs awarded and the costs paid? Isn't that a real indemnity giving true meaning to the words?
2007-07-18
00:24:02
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1 answers
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asked by
Icy Gazpacho
6
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics