2007-07-17 19:39:15 · 9 answers · asked by Behrooz D 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Biology
It's just left over from the development of the fetus. The breasts develop early on, just like the rest of the sex organs, but then their biology changes according to the gender that the fetus becomes.
A man's breast cannot provide milk and it doesn't contain the necessary tissue to do so. Even if a man becomes overweight and gets "man breasts", the biology of his breasts remains male.
The nipple remains, but it's no different than the clitoris remaining as a miniature version of the penis.
I'm not sure how hormone therapy for sex changes affects the biology of the breast. It definitely stimulates growth of the breasts in appearance, but I don't think it causes them to suddenly be milk-producing. Just like male hormone therapy for a woman can cause certain visual body changes but doesn't suddenly change their clitoris into a penis.
2007-07-17 19:49:18 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I assume you mean nipples, as very few men have real breast tissue. If that's the case its because up to 2 months in the womb all fetus develop as female. Then the hormones kick in and the baby develops either male or female genitals. The nipples are left over by that process.
And no, males of the human species have never been the milk bearers.
All mammals have the nipples - male and female alike.
2007-07-17 19:47:18 · answer #2 · answered by Barb Outhere 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Nearly all tissue in the human body is identical between males and females. This is why males occasionally see some breast growth in response to certain medical conditions. All the tissue exists in the male chest to grow breasts, but breast tissue depends on cycles of estrogen and progesterone to develop it properly. This is why most men do not develop breasts, but why they are sometimes prone to breast cancer.
2007-07-17 19:45:23 · answer #3 · answered by Ogre Princess 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Both males and females should be close to each other anatomically or it wouldnt work at all.
If you had paid attention in class (lol) you would have remembered that the only difference is the y chromosome
2007-07-17 19:48:06 · answer #4 · answered by QuiteNewHere 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. It's because when we are conceived we all start off female due to the x chromosome. Later, the sperm will be the determinant if you will be a male or female by giving another x chromosome (girl) or y chromosome (boy).
2007-07-17 19:44:49 · answer #5 · answered by zimmiesgrl 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Well, I'm not totally sure. All I know is that they are not useless. Men's breasts actually do have some kind of functionality, if you get my drift, but it's just not as "functional" as womens.
2007-07-17 19:42:48 · answer #6 · answered by Adel 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Could you possibly restate your question? I am not cleat as to what you are really asking. I know that I can't answer now, but perhaps if you make your question clearer someone else will be able to answer you better. This is my way of answering. Hope it helps.
2007-07-17 19:44:07 · answer #7 · answered by The PENsive Insomniac 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
because babies are the same gender in the womb until late in the pregnancy when hormones separate the boys from the girls. so they both have nipples early on.
2007-07-17 19:42:31 · answer #8 · answered by grrluknow 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋
it's a system of default...in case they want to change their mind about being a man.
2007-07-17 19:42:24 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋