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Is the practice of blocking the number of a parent or grandparent legal if that parent or grandparent has done nothing which warrants an order of protection? Does a father not have the right to communicate with his own children if they want to talk to him?

2007-07-17 06:11:15 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

5 answers

there can only be one father, so the number of fathers of her chillen caint be any secret

kinda obvious...

2007-07-17 06:18:26 · answer #1 · answered by jsbjoe 4 · 0 1

I seriously doubt there is a law about the mother blocking a phone number of the father. However if a order of protection is in place she can. But to block the children from the father for no reason is wrong and should be addressed by the court and a contact/visitation order established.

2007-07-17 06:17:12 · answer #2 · answered by mnwomen 7 · 0 1

EITHER parent who practices such can face losing custody of the child(ren) based on interference with the parental relationship.

So, what are the REAL facts?

EDITED BASED ON BR'S RESPONSE:

I suggest you go back to "judge" school.

In Franz v. United States, 707 F.2d 582, 601 (D.C. Cir. 1983), the court held that the parent-child relationship is a "liberty interest" constitutionally protected by the Fourteenth Amendment.

Likewise, O.C.G.A. §19-9-3(d) states that: "It is the express policy of this state to encourage that a minor child has continuing contact with parents and grandparents who have shown the ability to act in the best interest of the child and to encourage parents to share in the rights and responsibilities of raising their children after such parents have separated or dissolved their marriage."

Although it has been held that grandparents do not have an actual right to visitation (Brooks v. Parkerson, 265Ga. 189, 454 S.E. 2d 769 (1995) (concluding that a statute regarding "grandparental visitation" violated the federal and state constitutions)), this section plainly declared the public policy of this state. Visitation is no more and no less than part of the custody determination. See also Worlet v. Whiddon, 261 Ga. 218, 403 S.E. 2d 799 (1991).

I suggest you read a very fine article by someone I respect in the field before answering questions on family law again.

http://www.falseallegations.com/pas-bw1.htm

2007-07-17 06:14:12 · answer #3 · answered by hexeliebe 6 · 0 2

If it was my ex-wife...the answer would be yes...because it is in our divorce papers that I get to talk to the children at least 3 x a week and we have to have each other's phone numbers at all times...it all depends on what paper work you have...if she is just a "baby's mama" and you have no paper work then no it is not...also you can not be calling to talk to her, she can say you are harassing her...this is what I say to my ex:

EX: "Hello?"

Me: "Let me talk to the boys."

Talking to the kids....

ME: "Let me talk to your mother."

EX: "Hello?"

ME: "Get your child support check? Do the boys need anything?"

EX: "Yes I did and no."

ME: "OK" click.....dial tone

But now I have my youngest, so I very seldom talk to her at all...

2007-07-17 06:22:58 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Unless a court has ordered her not to, certainly she can.

2007-07-17 06:15:42 · answer #5 · answered by BR 6 · 1 1

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