2007-07-17 04:53:50 · 4 answers · asked by Sohrab H 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Other - Society & Culture
No.
Iranian tribes did not become anything approaching a nation until approximately 600 BC when they poured into the Assyrian Empire and put it to an end. They then were partially assimilated (the "partially" being that they were indeed "citified" as the Mongols in China almost 2,000 years later were, but that they maintained a distinctiveness and to some extent molded the systems of the empire to their way of doing things (unlike the Mongols in China who disappeared into Chinese society) and would then not only be thought a nation, but had a nation, so to speak.
Sumerians, 3,900 years before them had that much and maybe more. Egyptians, Chinese, Harrappans, Indians, Cretans, Hittites, Assyrians, Jews, Phoenicians, Myceneans, Greeks — all of these can claim the same or better before the Iranians can honestly do so. For that matter, the Andean peoples can as well, and perhaps some in Mexico though they and the Greeks were roughly contemporary to the Iranians (Persians).
So no, not even close.
2007-07-17 05:31:20 · answer #1 · answered by bimeateater 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
No I believe that it is Ethiopia. Encyclopedia Britannica says so lol
2007-07-17 12:02:02 · answer #2 · answered by tddmrk5 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I'd guess China, Japan or India.
2007-07-17 11:59:08 · answer #3 · answered by Rossonero NorCal SFECU 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I don't think so
2007-07-17 11:57:01 · answer #4 · answered by saksoka 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋