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2007-07-16 11:39:58 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Education & Reference Words & Wordplay

5 answers

Because it is a universal language.It prevents arguments between countries as to whose language should be used - Latin is politically neutral Also because it was the language of science back in the Reformation, when scientific exploration was starting. Hope this helps

2007-07-16 11:48:29 · answer #1 · answered by SKCave 7 · 1 0

One, Latin is the mother language for most European Languages, including English, but, it not currently spoken by any of them.

Two, for many centuries (about 600to 1500 AD) Catholic Monks were the most learned people in Europe, and they kept everything in Latin rather than translate it to the language that the locals spoke.

Three, out of respect for a great ancient culture (also why many scientific and mathematical terms have Greek roots as well).

2007-07-16 18:54:53 · answer #2 · answered by Kelsey 4 · 0 1

Latin (And Greek) had been the language of philosophy and philosophical texts published in Europe since ancient times. The Western Roman Empire was Latin speaking and the east, Greek. Science in the West, which started out simply as a branch of philosophy, called natural philosophy, was no different. For example, Spinoza, a Spanish Jew living in the Netherlands, wrote and published his great Tractatus in Latin. This way, other philosophers throughout Europe would have been able to read it. The last important work of natural Philosophy published in Latin in the UK was Newton's Principia. Hobbes also published in Latin, as did Linnaeus, whose work would have remained obscure if he had published in his native Swedish. Mathematicians in particular were keen on it, as it meant anyone educated anywhere else in Europe could read what they wrote. There was no one dominant language in Europe for most of this time period. The problems of publishing in your native language are illustrated effectively by the fate of Gregor Mendel's work, VERSUCHE ÜBER PFLANZEN-HYBRIDEN which languished for decades in obscurity, referred to here and there in a footnote, but largely unread by non-German speaking natural philosophers. For a short time, it looked like French might Latin, but then the dominance of English, and the rise of Nationalism all helped to push Latin off its pedestal. However, by tradition, Latin is still used in scientific names,as the uniformity this imparts is desirable, though nowadays not all new scientific names are Latin based.

2007-07-19 05:45:55 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

1) It is the root language of Western Civilization, with influences upon many of the most scientifically advanced nations.

2) It is a dead language so meanings within the language do not change. When you name something, you don't have to worry about the meaning changing.

2007-07-16 18:56:17 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

That's what Linnaeus came up with when he came up with the modern system of nomenclature. It seems it was the language of botany way back when he started working on it, and it isn't the language of any particular nation.

2007-07-17 00:31:59 · answer #5 · answered by Strix 5 · 0 0

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