why didn't Borden allow conscientious objectors, and recent immigrants from enemy countries to vote in the 1917 elections? Why didn't he allow women to vote?
2007-07-16 05:25:12 · 3 answers · asked by kissbreezy 3 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
First off he did allow, some, women to vote. Basically close female relatives of soldiers were given the vote. The point of all of this was to deny the vote to as many people as possible who would likely vote against his government and give the vote to as many people as possible who would likely vote for his government.
It worked.
2007-07-16 06:05:24 · answer #1 · answered by CanProf 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Perhaps this is not just an issue of Borden, but is far greater, as are most issues in history. The issue on voting is one of citizenship, not immigration. There's a huge difference. Also, as for women, the USA was on of the first in the world to allow universal female suffrage, so ...
2007-07-16 05:41:53 · answer #2 · answered by John B 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well, it depends..
2016-08-24 08:51:45 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋