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WWI AND WWII

2007-07-15 12:39:33 · 5 answers · asked by conitra o 1 in Arts & Humanities History

5 answers

Because so may farm workers were getting drafted in World War Two, the Presidents of Mexico and the U.S. entered into a guest worker agreement called the "Bracero Program". It allowed Mexicans entry into the U.S. to tend the crops in the western states.
Since we entered World War One in April of 1917 and the war ended on November 11, 1918 we had produced an overabundance of food stuffs for the troops. Farm prices began dropping in the 1920s and was one of the reasons the nation slipped into a depression beginning in October of 1929.

2007-07-15 12:50:54 · answer #1 · answered by desertviking_00 7 · 0 2

Where ?? Actually in Canada and America it boasted Agriculture to new levels of productivity and yield. Soldiers and war refugees need to be fed. WWI was waaaay different than World War Two. Transportation was still primitive and scientific management was a pipe dream. People did starve during World War One due to shortages, whereas in World War Two people were deliberatly starved to death - - - - food as a weapon.

Odd note // // during World War One countries such as Holland and Denmark retained their Neutral Status and profitted by continuing to supply dairy products for export. During World War Two these countries were under the Nazi yoke - - - after years of flat sales, the Republic of Ireland revived its Dairy Trade and made a tidy profit.

But the big profitts were made in America and Canada for grains and cattle, and in Australia and New Zealand for cattle & sheep and for Zealand Dairy Products - - - the Switzerland of the Antipodes...... So the short answer is War gave a boost to Agriculture Globaly in both Wars but more effectively in World War Two...

Pax-------------------------------

PS - - - Agrigulture in France took a horrific beating during both wars, and Agrigculture in Germany sufferred as well. When the Russians invaded East Germany a lot of farm animals were violated ...

2007-07-15 12:55:23 · answer #2 · answered by JVHawai'i 7 · 0 2

Here is a story my grandfather told me.

The British bought up a lot of US agriculture goods, both horses and beans (among other things.) This made the price of beans so good for enough years that farmers could afford to buy a Model T and get the hell out of the bean growing business and go to the auto plants to make more Model Ts.

That is, they made such a good profit, they could abandon a lot of marginal farm land (that rarely paid in cheaper bean years) for better paying factory work.

2007-07-16 20:53:43 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

they had to ships to carry soldiers insted of agriculture from other country. Which means no sell, which means they wont farm as much. Also most of the argiculture was sent to the army at a lower price. So there is a shipment problem and consumer problem.

2007-07-15 12:43:55 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

in Africa did not affect at all

2007-07-18 22:55:14 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

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