2007-07-15 12:07:09 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Because lawfully the person was not mentally capable of giving consent.
2007-07-15 12:12:27 · answer #1 · answered by J 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Its akin to strict liability in tort, but its strict liability in criminal law. As the youth is under age of majority they cannot give the legal consent that decides if they wanted to do it or not. The law assumes due to lack of ability to consent in the law that the contact was unwanted and thus the perpetrator is strictly criminally liable for the act of rape.
2007-07-15 12:38:20 · answer #2 · answered by David B 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because by statute, is is illegal....that means the "majority of the people" decided to make it against the law. In other words, although someone may be consenting, the rest of the population does not believe one or more of the parties involved actually understands what they are getting into, such as not realizing the consequences of their actions due to being immature or unschooled.
2007-07-22 20:18:06 · answer #3 · answered by Vindicaire 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Statutory rape is different from rape. Sex with a woman under a certain age (varies from state to state) violates this law regardless of whether it was supposedly consentual. The woman cannot consent because she has not reached the age of consent.
2007-07-15 12:10:46 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Because a minor is not of age of consent. Therefore the victim cannot give consent so its forced and called rape
2007-07-15 12:28:19 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because by being younger than the age of consent, you are deemed unable to make that decision according to the law. Can you say candy from a baby?
2007-07-15 12:13:10 · answer #6 · answered by booman17 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because by statute the younger individual cannot give consent and therefore the sex occurred without mutual consent.
2007-07-15 12:10:27 · answer #7 · answered by Legally Brunette 3 · 3⤊ 0⤋