Is my lease legal if my landlord has not signed it? Do both parties have to sign the lease for it to become legal or just the tenants? I know people will say well if you want to move out the landlord will just sign it but I have a copy where the landlord hasnt signed it and would like to know if it would be legal for me to move out later if I want since my lease is not signed by him which I hope would mean its not a legal document and cant hold me there for as long as my lease.
2007-07-15 09:59:50 · 10 answers · asked by isuzuki051 1 in Business & Finance ➔ Renting & Real Estate
ok also just so you all know I have never paid a deposit just first months rent type thing and month to month I have a lease with my signature and not his and the time I will be living there the time of the lease but no signature from him. So basically I have no deposit and no signature by him so I dont think im legally in a lease where I must stay for the time period it says
2007-07-15 10:06:54 · update #1
Any contract is binding on anyone that did sign. That means YOU are bound as long as you signed. Unless the landlord fails to comply with their obligations under the lease, you are legally bound to comply with yours.
MasterCard never signs the receipt when you pay with your card. That does not release you from the card holder agreement.
A contract requires AGREEMENT, NOT a signature. If a signature was required, VERBAL contracts would never be possible. A signature is simply evidence on such agreement. In the case of a lease, The landlord giving you the keys and allowing you to occupy the residence is evidence of agreement.
2007-07-15 10:09:00 · answer #1 · answered by STEVEN F 7 · 3⤊ 1⤋
If you have the only copy of the lease and it is unsigned then it is not a legally binding document. Maybe the landlord has a signed copy? If he can produce one, it is legally binding. Even if he does not produce a signed lease you still must abide by month to month laws and give a 30 day written notice to vacate.
2007-07-15 11:09:56 · answer #2 · answered by ebosgramma 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I believe that both parties must sign and date for the document to be a legal one. Meaning that since he did not sign along with you I don't think that it will stand up in court.
2007-07-19 09:12:52 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
If the landlord has a copy of the lease with your signature, you are probably stuck, since YOU were the one who signed your intent to enter into this contract.
If this comes to a court of law, chances are good you will lose.
It would be entirely different if the situation were reversed.
2007-07-15 10:08:14 · answer #4 · answered by acermill 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Both parties MUST sign for the contract to be valid. Unless your landlord has a copy signed by both of you, there is no valid contract and you are a month-to-month tenant on a verbal agreement and can move at any time with the normal statutory notice, usually 30 days. The LL can also put you out with the same notice.
2007-07-15 10:14:30 · answer #5 · answered by Bostonian In MO 7 · 0⤊ 5⤋
confident, sue them for the entire hire you are going to be out for 2 months or greater. you have a accomplished and signed contract mentioning that they're going to pay hire. that's none of your organisation in the event that they on no account circulate in, as long as they pay as agreed. they'd request to sub-enable the domicile to somebody else, yet they are nonetheless to blame for the entire condo volume. They knew this while they signed the contract. you have made the contract contingent upon transport of the deposit, yet chosen to not. won't make that mistake returned, i'm specific. They now repudiate the hire, this is a breach announcing they not prefer the premises. They nonetheless owe hire as damages. report a observe of eviction in the present day, as their hire is overdue. After the information expires, report an eviction in court (look up the Texas eviction techniques to be certain how long to attend and what to report), a minimum of for the record (they'd have a harder time renting everywhere else). Your hire in all probability says they could be charged the entire volume of hire for each month of the hire in which you may not hit upon a alternative tenant, as properly to sequence expenditures, court and criminal professional expenditures. deliver them an bill for hire for each month wherein the domicile isn't rented, as is your suited under the settlement. bill them in the present day for any criminal professional expenditures brought about with the help of their breach. deliver them the bill from the court for submitting the eviction case. positioned each and every thing in writing, deliver mail with the help of qualified mail with return receipt asked. save written logs of each and every communication, digital mail, pass to, record exchanged with them. this would quickly be a dispute over $3,090 (2 months hire), plus eviction and sequence expenditures. you may report a lawsuit and positioned a lien on their components, garnish their wages, and so on. they can't smash out with those lies. they are going to be to blame for the hire and the breach of settlement that they signed.
2016-09-30 01:36:53 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The landlord or his agent (manager) have to sign the lease or its not binding.
2007-07-15 10:10:19 · answer #7 · answered by snowlady 5 · 1⤊ 2⤋
it sounds like you are a month-to- month, not a lease.....perhaps the paper you have is just informational, not a lease form.
2007-07-15 10:17:47 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
definitely the landlord has to sign or his agent representative have him sign otherwise you are living month to month
2007-07-15 10:03:05 · answer #9 · answered by d s 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
it is not a legally executed document until both parties sign.
good luck
2007-07-15 10:02:45 · answer #10 · answered by Blue October 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋