Scenario:
Foreclosure is imminent; Non-Judicial state (California). The homeowner has run out of options (short sale, deed in lieu, etc.) and is prepared to walk away.
They respond to a road sign that says "we buy houses".
The company represents that they will "buy" the house in an attempt to sell it to a 3rd party or private investor.
To do so it requires the owner to sign over title. No promises are made that they will be able to sell the house and no promise is made that the owner will in any way be able to regain title. Unlike equity skimming scams, the intent is not for the owner to rent or lease the property and regain title later. Disclosure is made that any equity in the home will be lost and the only goal in the transaction is to avoid a foreclosure on the credit of the owner. Even that is explained that it is not a guarantee that this will occur and it is up to the owner to dilligently communicate with the credit credit bureaus.
2007-07-13
15:31:56
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7 answers
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asked by
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Business & Finance
➔ Renting & Real Estate
While title is transferred the loan remains in the name of the original owner and they are still responsible for the debt.
If indeed a 3rd party buyer is found they would bring the loan current and refinance the existing mortgage into their name. They would benefit from the equity less a fee to the company that "brokered" the transaction.
No payments are being made on the property and this is also disclosed and if the house is not sold it will be foreclosed upon by the lender as was originally planned.
Question: Is this legal? It would seem legit and a last ditch effort buy the homeowner, not to save their house, but their credit. No fee is charged to the homeowner and everything is disclosed in writing.
Experienced opinions please and rationale for the opinions would be appreciated.
2007-07-13
15:32:14 ·
update #1
Once again, this is sort of a last ditch roll of the dice. The worst that can happen is that the house gets foreclosed anyway. The buyer is prepared to walk. The best that can happen is that a buyer is found and the mortgage transferred to another name thus preventing a foreclosure on the owners record. Can anyone comment specifically on this scenario as I described it?
2007-07-13
16:46:06 ·
update #2