http://www.usconstitution.net/xconst_A1Sec8.html
2007-07-13 13:51:46 · 8 answers · asked by Honor 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
why or why not.
2007-07-13 13:52:16 · update #1
No. The original Constitution specifically prohibited any "direct" (income) taxes. That's why the 16th Ammendment allowing such taxes was required.
2007-07-13 13:57:39 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
Actually it doesn't unless you are doing business with the United States. Up until 1913 income was not taxable. Seeing a new source of revenue to help fund the government, in 1901 a proposed amendment was sent to the states on July 12. On Feb. 3 1913 the 61st Congress rayified the 16th Amendment, causing tax on income.
2016-05-17 06:47:12 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I am not a fan of federal income tax.
2007-07-13 13:56:16 · answer #3 · answered by Nicholas L 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Nope, it specifically says "but all Duties, Imposts and Excises shall be uniform throughout the United States", which precludes the federal income tax.
2007-07-13 13:56:08 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
I think the Constitution is one of the most perfect documents every written. It needs no help from us to remain so, other that to make dam sure those Washington idiots leave it alone.
The 16th Amendment address revenue taxes...it works, it's not broken, no need to fix it.
2007-07-13 15:38:33 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
Read the community guidelines! Yahoo "Don'ts" number 20--don't post the same question excessively.
The 16th amendment has been upheld over and over. Don't ask this same question over and over!
2007-07-13 13:58:26 · answer #6 · answered by raichasays 7 · 2⤊ 2⤋
DOWN WITH THE INCOME TAX
2007-07-13 13:56:31 · answer #7 · answered by Greg 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
not only should it, it is.
well, more precisely, it's what gives congress the power to levy taxes.
2007-07-13 13:55:02 · answer #8 · answered by brian 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋