2007-07-13 10:00:40 · 5 answers · asked by Alexander 6 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
engineer is approximately correct. That final velocity would be just over 3 x 10^8 m/s. That's so close to the speed of light that you would need to take relativistic effects into account to get an accurate answer. Of course, then there's the problem of creating a uniform gravitational field over the space of half a light year.
2007-07-13 11:31:25 · answer #1 · answered by Frank N 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If the gravity is uniform, then the particle is in free fall at a constant distance from the mass creating the gravitational field. That is, the particle is orbiting the mass at a constant altitude. Its final velocity depends on how high the orbit is.
2007-07-13 10:12:24 · answer #2 · answered by hevans1944 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Particle implies a point mass, therefore no finite dimensions to present any air resistance. Therefore, no aerodynamic or skin-friction drag.
Assuming no initial velocity:
Vf = a t
Vf = 9.8 * 365 * 24 * 3600 meters / sec.
2007-07-13 10:13:41 · answer #3 · answered by engineer 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Something like the speed of light?
2007-07-13 15:23:33 · answer #4 · answered by Scythian1950 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
More data to solve. are we to assume no aerodynamic loading/friction, is it in a vacuum?
2007-07-13 10:09:45 · answer #5 · answered by fnsurf 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋