If a married man's wife is cheating on him and have 4 kids together but one might be the man who she's cheating on him with. If the man who she's cheating on him with has given her some kind of drug or done some sort of witchcraft on her. If she mistreats her daughters by hitting them cussing at them and leaving them alone at night asleep so that she can go out with her partner while her husband is out of town working? I NEED HELP! MY BEST FRIEND IS WORRIED HE DOESN'T KNOW WHAT TO DO!
2007-07-12 15:24:16 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
I'm pretty sure any couple can get divorce for any "whatever's". No such thing as adultery anymore; they call it "irreconciliable difference". It sounds pretty wacky to me. Before they have the need for a judge, they better damn see a Psychiatric Counselor.
2007-07-12 16:17:43 · answer #1 · answered by Debs 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
§ 6.003. ADULTERY[0]. The court may grant a divorce in favor
of one spouse if the other spouse has committed adultery[0].
see, texas statute 6.003
2007-07-12 15:40:09 · answer #2 · answered by Mike C 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋