Said person refers to an aforementioned person. It is not the kind of thing that is normally used in conversational speech, though it could be used tongue in cheek, or perhaps in an elevated or legal diction.
I've used it in writing humor, when referring back to a ponderous description of someone, or perhaps pretending anonymity. It's a very stuffy term and quite easy to poke fun at.
In legal documents, "said person" would be a tool so you didn't have to keep referring back to "said parties" or to keep the persons involved in the contract from having to sign their name 123 times in the course of one document.
example:
" Said person shall pay said probation fee once each month during such time as said person remains on supervised probation."
http://www.mass.gov/legis/laws/mgl/276-87a.htm
2007-07-16 07:23:08
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answer #1
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answered by maî 6
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I think this is when of the best questions I've ever come across in my entire time being here. I am envious because I wish I had thought to ask it. I knew you had read and translated much of the 'original' text rather than going by the Anglicized version and I always wondered what much of it really said. That so many people read the Bible thousands of years later and refuse to recognize it has been extremely altered and made to perpetuate prejudices over time never ceases to amaze me. Throughout time it has been revamped and retranslated. Human beings have taken their own wants, needs and made them applicable. Entire societies have changed the Bible so it is something the governing parties can utilize to further their causes, usually of evil. The English translations hardly touch upon the original Hebrew (O.T.) and Greek (N.T.). I know little of these original works and original languages but it is impossible not to be aware of the depths to which man can take a manuscript and change its stories for personal gain. I know almost nothing of what the 'original' (as original as can be) scripts say but I am aware too that they were written in an entirely different era and perpetuated a set of laws and morals meant to fix the problems of that time. I know you are a Christian and I an atheist, but I utterly respect the fact that you have looked into your beliefs with such depth and kept always in the back of your mind the fact that those of a high position - royalty, despots, lawmakers, tyrants, etc.- have ripped any original scripts apart so as to enforce their often terroristic beliefs upon the masses. Rarely have the majority of people ever had a voice in regard to what they believed the Bible meant. Now most just (and this goes back to your "bossy" question) interpret whatever stunted version they have in a self-serving manner, judging everyone except themselves. I want to ask you personally if you can explain what you believe about God's "free will" to me, Uncle W. Not only does such a concept seem not to be mentioned at all in the Bibles, I have to wonder why someone so ethereal would offer words and laws to a people he's created with such a great bounty of ignorance - and why he's only allowed them to use about 6% of their brain capacity anyway. Why not create us as a peaceful lot and allow us to traverse the vast universes and love and be happy? Why hold that back from everyone? I do not agree at all with the premise that people need to suffer in order to understand how good they have it - although I can somewhat comprehend how that can be in this world. Why not create people to learn about this huge, eternal world by offering it up to them from the beginning? Nobody could ever tire of the experience as it will always be new. I know how sappy this may sound but I do not mean it to be at all. If there is so very much to our world, all of it created by God, then why not give his live creations the means to enjoy it all to their fullest extent? Why limit them so? Thank you, Wayne, for an excellent and thought-provoking question. It is a shame that more Christians like you don't recognize the fallacies of any human rendering of the possible supernatural. Some do (and I know a number here - hi Rammie, Kerilyn, Bella, etc.) but the majority seem to completely refuse to engage such an idea (probably because they're so... human).
2016-03-28 01:27:27
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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"Said person/thing" refers back to a person or thing that you already mentioned. It is commonly used in legal documents, such as a lease for an apartment, otherwise the person's name would have to repeated over and over again. By using "said person", you can fill in the renter's name once and then leave the rest of the contract as it is.
2007-07-12 08:48:03
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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Said Person
2016-10-02 21:49:48
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answer #4
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answered by ? 4
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It is when somebody mentions a "thing" and when it comes up later and you don't have a specific way to adress it (no name), you would say "said thing". It really isn't that useful.
Nosoop4u
2007-07-12 07:42:47
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answer #5
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answered by nosoop4u246 7
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"said person" refers to the person you just talked about. I haven't heard it used other than in sarcasm
2007-07-12 07:35:19
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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This Site Might Help You.
RE:
What does "said person" or "said thing" mean?
When would you use those remarks?
under what circumstances would you use it? like... i was thinking it would be like "when is this 'said person' coming?" or "what does this 'said thing' do?"
and i right? how else does it work?
2015-08-19 17:16:47
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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It is merely a reference to the person or thing you just mentioned. For example: I received a letter from my ex-boyfriend. Said person is trying to rekindle a romance with me.
2015-12-29 15:14:04
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answer #8
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answered by live*love*laugh 1
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