let total number of marbles in bag be x including 4 blue marbles
probability of drawing blue marble = 4/x
given 4/x = 1 / 6
so x = 24
additional white marbles needed = 24 - 4(blue) - 12(white)
= 8
2007-07-12 04:25:06
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answer #1
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answered by Vipin A 3
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When you have added the proper number of white marbles, the probability of drawing a blue marble will then be 1/6. This means that 1/6 of the marbles in the bag will be blue. Since we know that there will be 4 blue marbles, this means there will be a total of 4/(1/6)=24 marbles altogether. This means you added 24-16=8 white marbles.
2007-07-12 11:27:01
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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You need to add 8 white marbles because then the ratio between them will be 4:24 or 1:6 (1 chance to get a blue marble per 6 chances to get a white marble)
2007-07-12 11:32:12
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answer #3
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answered by Andrew 4
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P (blue) = 1 / 6 = 4 / 24
Require 4 blue and 24 total so there must be 20 white. This means that 8 white must be added to existing 12 white.
2007-07-16 10:10:18
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answer #4
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answered by Como 7
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as it stands with 4 blue balls and 12 white balls, the probability of drawing out a blue ball is 4/(12+4) = 4/16 = 1/4
to get the probability to be 1/6 with just 4 blue balls, you would need a total of 4*6=24 balls in the bag. since you are at 16 originally you need to add 8 more white balls.
answer: 8 white balls
2007-07-12 11:26:16
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answer #5
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answered by koalahash 3
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current total=16
total of blue=4
current probabilty=4/16=1/4
think what divided by 4 will make 6? because we have to get 4 to 1
therefore its 4/24=1/6
16 to 24 is an increase of 8
answer:8
2007-07-12 11:35:11
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answer #6
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answered by Dill 4
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You need to add 8 white ones to get your answer.
That would make your total about of marbles 24.
4/24=1/6
2007-07-12 11:26:27
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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four
2007-07-12 11:24:48
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answer #8
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answered by sledge 2
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