2007-07-11 10:43:41 · 4 answers · asked by rockdaver 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Trespass actually is an intentional tort but you only have to intend to be on the piece of property where you end up. You do not have to actually know it is someone else's land. For instance, if I shove you and you fall on the ground and land on someone else's grass when you land, you did not intend to go on that piece of land, so there is no trespass. If, however, you intend to stand on a piece of grass which you think is inside your property line (but turns out to be on your neighbors' land) you have trespassed, though there are no real damages and probably would not be a suit.
2007-07-11 12:56:01 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
You are very confused. Causation has nothing to do with intentional torts. Trespass can be unintentional, especially as to land. Negligence by definition is NOT intentional. Try stating facts instead of trying to sound like you know something about law.
2007-07-11 10:51:10 · answer #2 · answered by thylawyer 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Tresspass to Land is an intentional tort
Causation is an element of negligence, not an element of an intentional tort
2007-07-11 11:07:53 · answer #3 · answered by BigD 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't understand the question. Tresspassing may be an unintentional tort.
2007-07-11 10:47:12 · answer #4 · answered by regerugged 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋