English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

(Man on third scores) Need facts, MLB rulebook.

2007-07-11 05:12:34 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Sports Baseball

10 answers

No. The batter does NOT get the RBI, the run scores and counts, but for whatever reason, it is official MLB rule not to award the batter an RBI.

"10.04 Runs Batted In
A run batted in is a statistic credited to a batter whose action at bat causes one or more runs to score, as set forth in this Rule 10.04.
(a) The official scorer shall credit the batter with a run batted in for every run that scores
(1) unaided by an error and as part of a play begun by the batter's safe hit (including the batter’s home run), sacrifice bunt, sacrifice fly, infield out or fielder's choice, unless Rule 10.04(b) applies;
(2) by reason of the batter becoming a runner with the bases full (because of a base on balls, an award of first base for being touched by a pitched ball or for interference or obstruction); or
(3) when, before two are out, an error is made on a play on which a runner from third base ordinarily would score.
(b) The official scorer shall not credit a run batted in
(1) when the batter grounds into a force double play or a reverse-force double play; or
(2) when a fielder is charged with an error because the fielder muffs a throw at first base that would have completed a force double play.
(c) The official scorer's judgment must determine whether a run batted in shall be credited for a run that scores when a fielder holds the ball or throws to a wrong base. Ordinarily, if the runner keeps going, the official scorer should credit a run batted in; if the runner stops and takes off again when the runner notices the misplay, the official scorer should credit the run as scored on a fielder's choice."

2007-07-11 05:20:36 · answer #1 · answered by Mocker 1 · 1 0

Mocker and some others have it right. No RBI in that situation because of the rules. However, I disagree with the rule and think the batter should be credited with the RBI. Why? If the batter grounds into one out, he gets credited with the RBI, so why not if he grounds into 2 outs. He still "batted" the run it. The number of outs created on the play shouldn't affect the RBI being credited.

2007-07-11 07:27:49 · answer #2 · answered by dwmatty19 5 · 0 1

If it's your basic GIDP, no RBI, Rule 10.04 spells this out.

If it's one of the rarer, more bizarre types of double-play, it would depend on the exact deconstruction of how the two outs occurred. It is possible, although exceedingly unusual, to credit an RBI on a double play, but it has to be a concurrently exceedingly unusual DP. Standard GIDP, nope.

2007-07-11 05:29:21 · answer #3 · answered by Chipmaker Authentic 7 · 0 0

No, it's no RBI. Even though he got the run in, he got 2 outs for his team, which isn't too good either.

2007-07-11 05:25:54 · answer #4 · answered by uncheels1710 2 · 0 0

nope he grounded into a forced double play 10.04

2007-07-11 06:04:02 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

No, because he caused two outs.

See rule 10.04.

2007-07-11 05:17:51 · answer #6 · answered by bencas9900 4 · 1 0

Yeah.

2007-07-11 05:16:50 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 3

No ribbie.

2007-07-11 05:44:40 · answer #8 · answered by Sarge 3 · 0 0

yes.. cause he still drove in the run. it's like a sac fly

2007-07-11 05:16:43 · answer #9 · answered by Walter M 1 · 0 4

of course!!!!!!!!!

2007-07-11 06:31:49 · answer #10 · answered by Spud The Diet Dew Drinker Go Me! 2 · 0 2

fedest.com, questions and answers