Or does the fact that this may be gambling, mean that the contract is void?
2007-07-09 08:41:07 · 11 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
No contract is valid if it violates the law, and in most places those bets violate the law.
2007-07-09 08:44:28 · answer #1 · answered by Steve C 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
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2016-06-10 07:10:01 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
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2016-12-23 02:48:29 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Is quite simply to get at sport betting with the Zcodes System that you will see here https://tr.im/LNlu9 .
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2016-04-29 05:25:08 · answer #4 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Sports betting systems are sets of events that when combined for a particular game for a particular sport represents a profitable betting scenario
2016-05-16 15:17:50 · answer #5 · answered by ? 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No bet is legaly binding UNLESS you sign a official document. So no, the bet is probaly not legaly binding
2007-07-09 08:50:39 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
As a bet, in most cases, is against the law, such a contract is unenforceable.
2007-07-09 08:47:45 · answer #7 · answered by msi_cord 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A contract against public policy is not enforceable against either party. Against public policy is classified as so aggregious as to offend the conscienceness of society, such as child labor, or an illegal act, such as gambling where the act itself is illegal.
2007-07-09 08:44:56 · answer #8 · answered by hexeliebe 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it could be upheld in court if the contract is signed by the people involved and also a witness. in addition, if it can be proven that the contract was signed while everyone was in good mental health (ie: not at deaths door or totally drunk, etc.) then its legal
2007-07-09 08:50:09 · answer #9 · answered by jen 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
most likely you will not get a judge to enforce the bet for many reasons
2007-07-09 08:44:34 · answer #10 · answered by goz1111 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋