I own a rental house with an upstairs apartment that I also rent. The village sent me a notice saying that that house has to be owner occupied to be able to rent the second floor apt. I have tenants in both units. They claim this ordinance was passed in 1995 before I bought the house. My lawyer thinks the rule is illegal and suggests I sue. But this will take me 5000 to 8000 dollars and 12 to 18 months to get to court. If I knew I would win I would do it. But having been involved in property lawsuits before, I don't trust any judges to rule for what should be right. Do I have a good case?
2007-07-08
05:59:04
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4 answers
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asked by
rstarre
2
in
Business & Finance
➔ Renting & Real Estate