So there's that old saying...
"There's more than one way to skin a cat."
Is that grammatically correct?
I mean, the word 'way' is the subject, I suppose, so the correct verb would be 'is'. But if you paraphrase it...
"There are more ways than one to skin a cat."
Then the subject, I suppose, is 'ways' and the correct verb is 'are'.
But... I guess what I don't understand is how 'more' can be describing something singular in the first sentence, yet something plural in the second. It's a quantitative measure both times. (It measures 'how many of' not 'how much of'... "I want more pie." VS "I want more pies.")
I'm sure that the phrase 'more than' has something to do with it, but I'm no grammar expert or anything...
2007-07-07 08:38:29 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Education & Reference ➔ Words & Wordplay
HUH?! ?!!?!
2007-07-07 08:53:59 · update #1
This is a perfect example of our crazy language. The opposite of "more" is, of course, "less." Except when it modifies a plural, then it's "fewer." So, you say, "I want more toys," or "I want more money," but "I want fewer toys," (if that's possible for a man) and "I want less money." So, E, go with it. That's English for you.
2007-07-07 10:22:05 · answer #1 · answered by Elaine P...is for Poetry 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
well then payy attention to sayings like "the more you do, the more you something" you are not supposed to use an article in front of plurl form of the cats
but in this case, the for of "to be" - IS is conjugated to the first noun, eveytime when there is listing or comparing by not showing the exact quantity that is being compared you are supposed to use singular indefinite articles. it the rule
2007-07-07 15:49:07 · answer #2 · answered by Gitano 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yes that's correct.
2007-07-07 15:49:56 · answer #3 · answered by Robert 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋