I just bought a house 2 weeks ago. While I was in the process of ripping down the walls to do some upgrades, I found much of the wood has been charred and some beams have been sistered (some have not)
The seller never disclosed to us that there was ever a fire in the house.
the house is 97years old, so it could have happened before her.
HOWEVER - the house has brand new windows, and the old molding from the house was saved, and reinstalled.
This means, the owner before us SAW the fire damage even if she didnt cause it.
1. If we can prove it happened while she lived there - do we have any recourse?
2. If we can prove it happned before she lived there, but she definitly KNEW about the fire damage, do we have any recourse?
2007-07-07
00:28:56
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2 answers
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asked by
oneakmusic
2
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics