Because we have found evidence indicating at least one introgressed gene appeared in the M.E. 37,000 yrs ago & spread to 70% of the population (remaining very rare in Sub Saharan Africa) is it reasonable to develop the hypothesis that Europeans got their hair, skin & eye color from Neanderthal due to their closer association with that group. For some reason only Europeans developed these traits.
Other groups that occupy a simular environment to Europeans did not develop light hair or eyes & Europeans did have the most prolonged contact with the Neanderthal.
Before some of you give me the obsolete stuff about no evidence of Neanderthal & Homo Sapien having interbred, read the following links. Bruce Lahn's team from U of Chicago found a 1.1 million yr old gene that suddenly appeared in a species that was only 200K yrs old... this gene "introgressed" into the human genome 37,000 yrs ago.
http://www.sflorg.com/sciencenews/scn110706_03.html
http://www.johnhawks.net/weblog/2004/11/0
2007-07-06
16:26:14
·
5 answers
·
asked by
Anonymous
in
Social Science
➔ Anthropology
paintmeblue... the acquiring of knowledge is important to anthropology, that is what it is all about.
2007-07-06
16:50:35 ·
update #1
waffelhouse: I'm not interested in later accomplishments of Europeans... I only question the gene found by genetic researchers & have concluded that the Neandertal is the probable contributer of said gene... Most of the World has that gene because our ancestors all came from Africa through the ME then spread out. The Neanderthal were in the ME & Europe.
2007-07-06
16:56:21 ·
update #2
Sorry this question was posted twice... that was due to doing several things at once & forgetting that I'd hit the submit button on the question. That cost me 10 points to get one question on the board.
2007-07-09
06:34:25 ·
update #3