2007-07-06 15:06:30 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Social Science ➔ Other - Social Science
depends on who the doc is talking to and for what reason. HIPPA has loop holes. something to chew on.
2007-07-06 16:27:42 · answer #1 · answered by Max 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Absolutely! HIPAA was passed in 1996 giving doctors permission to share your information only to the degree necessary and for the sole intention of filing insurance claims, and even then you have to sign a release form. Doctors and hospitals were given until April 2002 to comply. So not only did he violate HIPAA, but also the AMA oath.
2007-07-06 22:17:46 · answer #2 · answered by cjspeanut 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A doctor should not mention a person's name or describe the person in such detail to a group or other person that would know them such that people would know who it was and the person did not give permission to be divulged. If the doctor did that, they would be breaking the HIPAA laws.
2007-07-06 22:14:29 · answer #3 · answered by cavassi 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
So if there was not a release of information in her file, he would be violating her/his confidentiality. Therefore, a receipients rights should be filed reporting the offense.
2007-07-06 22:29:12 · answer #4 · answered by misskellieCMU 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
absolutly! but eat a pizza eh?
2007-07-06 22:10:53 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
oh my god you are so bad
lol
2007-07-06 22:12:13 · answer #6 · answered by Shake-Zula 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
lol
2007-07-06 22:08:51 · answer #7 · answered by Buffy Summers 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋