A minor's failure to perform an executory contract within a reasonable time after reaching the age of majority implies disaffirmance (true or false)?
A covenant not to compete is never enforceable(true or false)?
A contract that exculpates one party for negligence or other wrongdoing will not usually be viewed as unconscionable (true or false)?
No contract for a sale of goods needs to be in writing to be enforceable (true or false)?
2007-07-06 10:34:46 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
1. Not always, but usually. See my answer to this question in your NEXT question on Y! Answers.
2. FALSE - it has been enforced in the states of TX, AR, and MO, that I personally know of.
3. TRUE - but this is a hairy situation. The language itself must be examined. Usually, these are upheld in the USA.
4. FALSE - read the Statute of Frauds. ($500 or more, must be in writing)
2007-07-06 11:17:11 · answer #1 · answered by cyanne2ak 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
^^@first reply: You attempt to say that after your in your face in entrance of your author. Anyhow, I agree. But God gave us the bonus of enchantment in a non-lustful approach and the individual that's proper for us, God will deliver us the want for. As for peers and another folks; Beauty is within the eye of the beholder, so we're in no situation to pass judgement on considering one million. That's insulting to God and a couple of. God calls us to like every body.
2016-09-05 17:06:55 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
do your own homework.....
2007-07-06 10:38:07 · answer #3 · answered by consrgreat 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋